Hi folks,
I am working on Quiz 4-1 in the ASM Manual (page 87), and had a question.
For an American call option on a stock, you are given:
(i) The stock's price is 52.
(ii) The stock's continuous dividend rate is 10%.
(iii) The option expires in 6 months.
(iv) The strike price is 53.
(v) The continuously compounded risk-free interest rate is .03
The option is modeled with a 2-period binomial tree in which u=1.3, d=.8. Determine the call premium.
So I get the projected end nodes for the stock price are
S_uu = 87.88
S_ud=54.08
S_dd=33.28
I also get the payoffs as
C_uu=34.88
C_ud=1.08
C_dd=0
I also am able to calculate p*, the probability that the stock will go up in price, = .365304.
However when we pull back to nodes u and d,
they use
C_u=[e^(-.25(.03))]* (.365304 * 34.88 + (1-.365304)*1.08) = 13.32696.
Why in this part of the formula:
[e^(-.25(.03))]
Do they not take into account the dividend? When I solved the problem I had used
[e^(-.25(.03-.1))]
Thanks
I am working on Quiz 4-1 in the ASM Manual (page 87), and had a question.
For an American call option on a stock, you are given:
(i) The stock's price is 52.
(ii) The stock's continuous dividend rate is 10%.
(iii) The option expires in 6 months.
(iv) The strike price is 53.
(v) The continuously compounded risk-free interest rate is .03
The option is modeled with a 2-period binomial tree in which u=1.3, d=.8. Determine the call premium.
So I get the projected end nodes for the stock price are
S_uu = 87.88
S_ud=54.08
S_dd=33.28
I also get the payoffs as
C_uu=34.88
C_ud=1.08
C_dd=0
I also am able to calculate p*, the probability that the stock will go up in price, = .365304.
However when we pull back to nodes u and d,
they use
C_u=[e^(-.25(.03))]* (.365304 * 34.88 + (1-.365304)*1.08) = 13.32696.
Why in this part of the formula:
[e^(-.25(.03))]
Do they not take into account the dividend? When I solved the problem I had used
[e^(-.25(.03-.1))]
Thanks
Quiz 4-1 in ASM Manual
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