This study note goes through an example where company A has gotten financing via $1B of debt to company B while promising 10% of face. This was the case for a default free case, so the idea is that upon maturity, company A would pay company B $1.1B.
Where I'm confused is that the author then says to consider a case where the situation was not default free, so now the debt will trade at a discount to the $1B par, so it will now cost $900M.
What I don't understand is how the cash flows work now....
1. Is Company A still expected to pay Company B $1.1B at maturity even though they only got $900M now?
2. Does Company A now have to pay Company B only $900M*1.10 at maturity?
3. Is the $900M just something used to signify that the required interest rate by company B is now [(1000/990) - 1] instead of 10%?
4. How does Company A end up with $1B in debt when the price of the debt changes to $900M on a $1B par?
I am hoping the true answer is something close to what I've said in 1-4 above..
C4L
Where I'm confused is that the author then says to consider a case where the situation was not default free, so now the debt will trade at a discount to the $1B par, so it will now cost $900M.
What I don't understand is how the cash flows work now....
1. Is Company A still expected to pay Company B $1.1B at maturity even though they only got $900M now?
2. Does Company A now have to pay Company B only $900M*1.10 at maturity?
3. Is the $900M just something used to signify that the required interest rate by company B is now [(1000/990) - 1] instead of 10%?
4. How does Company A end up with $1B in debt when the price of the debt changes to $900M on a $1B par?
I am hoping the true answer is something close to what I've said in 1-4 above..
C4L
? on Theory of Risk Capital in Financial Firms
0 commentaires:
Enregistrer un commentaire