In some IBNR valuation, Actuaries derive their ultimate loss form combination of several reserving methods(chain Ladder, BF, Frequency-severity ). As example : Ultimate Loss= 20%ChainLadder + 50%BF + 30%F-S like this .
So, how we interpret this and what are the reasons for that???
Thanks
So, how we interpret this and what are the reasons for that???
Thanks
Ultimate Loss-IBNR
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